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4

Sorry to say that, but the currently best answer on this seems to be only: "we also have not been able to locate it by searching the net". To conclude from that that it doesn't exist in the papal archives or other books not digitized –– seems a bit premature? The question comes in three interrelated but distinct parts: ––# 1. Did Urban issue a bull of ...


4

TED above has answered very successfully, I just complement. I refer to my previous answer, to state that the Crusades had amply justification without any concept of Terra Nullius. Was there the idea of "peaceful Crusades"? And the Iberians had a lot of dealings with the Muslim polities. Besides that, Muslims were not the only non-Christians ...


12

Short answer Pope Urban II issued no such bull for the First Crusade. The source which first made this claim, possibly Pramod K. Nayar, in 'The Postcolonial Studies Dictionary', appears to have falsely assumed that Urban II's speech at the Council of Clermont in November 1095 was a papal bull (it wasn't), and then retroactively applied the much more recent ...


5

I doubt the first words of the bull were "terra nullius," as that term has a general meaning in international law as "land that is legally unoccupied or uninhabited." Pope Urban II's acts in 1095 are listed in Jaffé's Regesta pontificum romanorum (vol. 2) pp. 676-684. Jaffé p. 688 does say the following, under 12 July 1096: In eodem concilio de liberanda ...


45

It seems likely this is a historical myth. According to WikiPedia's list of Papal Bulls*, Urban II did issue a bull that year, but it had to do with who was allowed to excommunicate the ruler of the Kingdom of Aragon. I can't find a link to the text online either, so it seems possible other topics were dealt with, but that one's so different it seems ...


1

Was Deicide officially taught in American Catholic (“parochial”) schools and if so, when did it officially end? Short Answer: This isn't a Catholic thing it's a Christian thing and historically and in modern times is more associated with scapegoating, superstition, and prejudice than it is with main stream Christian beliefs. No it has never ...


4

Wikipedia's article on Jewish deicide makes clear that the Catholic Church had downplayed Jewish responsibility for the death of Jesus at the Council of Trent, centuries before. As you suggest, at Vatican II the concept was explicitly rejected. Of course, these edicts are not necessarily what is taught or learned in local schools. Your story is sadly ...


1

No, deicide was not taught in any Catholic schools in the 20th century, except possibly heretical or mistaken ones. The reason is simple--deicide is not possible in Catholic doctrine, since God cannot die. This has been Catholic (and Greek Orthodox and, following them both, mainline Protestant) teaching at least since the Council of Chalcedon in 451, which ...


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