This is a plausible description.
Probably not 'the norm' in how it went down exactly, but easily filed under 'could have happened'.
But it is essential to not generalise this too far.
Since the revolution there was a general right for an accused to have a trial. That was copied from English law and survived throughout the 19th century unharmed until 'Vichy'.
After reviewing the actual treaty texts, I eventually have decided that no, France was not in violation of the main naval treaties. This is despite the various blurbs from Wikipedia that I pointed out in the comments. How so? Well, let’s go through the situation and treaties and pull some threads in a linear fashion.
The Washington Naval Treaty (copy at the ...