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58

They're maintained as a matter of tradition, which is not unusual in monarchies. It's used both for prestige and as a relic of an era when European diplomacy revolved around territorial claims of the monarchs. That said, most titles do have clear geographical or dynastic sources. If you do find one that seems strange, leave a comment and I'll see if I can ...


31

tl;dr: No, at least not in the sense suggested. The earliest source of something akin to this story, seems to be the 1584 Historie of Cambria, now called Wales, the first printed history of Wales. The author, a Welsh cleric called David Powel, wrote that: He called the Welshmen togither, declaring unto them, that whereas they were oftentimes suters unto ...


27

When Peter 'upgraded' the Russian title of 'tsar' (царь) to 'emperor' (император), this meant that the corresponding titles would have to be given a similar jump upwards. The specific issue arose because the Westernized 'emperor', though sharing its root with the Slavonized 'tsar' in the Latin 'caesar', was a more important title than that of tsar, the two ...


22

On 7 December 1964, when the former Lord High Chancellor Reginald Manningham-Buller was created Viscount Dilhorne, of Greens Norton in the County of Northampton. He had originally been elevated to the peerage two years prior, as Baron Dilhorne, of Towcester in the County of Northampton, for his appointment to the Lord Chancellorship. This was also one of the ...


19

According to the Wikipedia article on Constantine XI Palaiologos, no. Despite the increase in emperors with the same name during the Middle Ages, such as the several Michaels and Constantines, the practice was never introduced. Instead, the Byzantines used nicknames and patronymics to distinguish rulers of the same name. Thus, the numbering of Byzantine ...


18

This may sound unintuitive, but a new kingdom could not be trivially proclaimed. Calling yourself a king has very little meaning if it isn't recognised by anyone else. For maximum acceptance by your peers and subjects, therefore, your new kingdom had to be properly constituted by the lawful authorities. In the case of Latin Europe during the High Middle ...


18

This question Did an English Duke ever grant away an Earldom that he held?" generated so much confusion, including references to courtesy titles and European practice, that I decided to contact the experts on British peerage at the House of Lords. I received a reply from the Assistant Registrar of the Peerage and Baronetage, which he has kindly ...


18

Short and Simple answer (actually, it's not so simple...) The granting of the title 'Prince of Wales' by Edward I to his son (the future Edward II) was a demonstration of his authority over Wales and a political statement to that effect. One could also argue that the king was emphasizing the importance of Wales by granting it to his heir, his own flesh and ...


17

The short answer is: "No, there is no evidence of this in historical records". The word, 'pharaoh' [pr aA] is first attested in the First Dynasty, about 3150 BCE. It means 'great house', or 'palace'. It wasn't used as a title by Egyptian kings until the reign of Thutmose III in the New Kingdom (his reign lasted from about 1479 to 1425 BCE). From ...


17

Presumably you are referring to an extract from the Essex Historical Records on Richard French, born 1675: Richard French, born in Topsfield, Aug. 18, 1676, called husbandman and yeoman in deeds, removed to Enfield, Connecticut, as early as 1699. He held no office in Topsfield, but his name occurs frequently on the Enfield records. He was chosen fence ...


16

There wasn't one. The Princess of Wales is a courtesy title. That is, its holders are not created princesses in their own right, but rather accorded that honour only by virtue of marriage to the Prince of Wales. Accordingly, in the absence of such a prince (or when one is unmarried), there could be no Princess of Wales. Under British law, any title to be ...


16

It's actually not that unusual for monarchs to claim titles in pretence as a means of increasing their prestige. The Kings of England and Great Britain had famously claimed to also be Kings/Queens of France right up until the Act of Union in 1800, despite the minor detail that England had lost Calais, her sole remaining possession on the European mainland, ...


16

The children of a sovereign Grand Duke may be titled "Prince" (Luxembourg, Tuscany, Baden, Hesse-Darmstadt, Saxe-Weimar) or "Duke" (Oldenburg) in accordance with the customs of the dynasty. The heir of the throne of a Grand Duchy is titled "Hereditary Grand Duke", as soon as he reaches the full legal age (majority). wikipedia I continue to maintain that the ...


16

The inscription LEOPOLDUS II D·G·R·IMP·S·A·G·H·B·REX·A·A·B·L·D abbreviates the following: Leopoldus Secundus, Dei gratia Romanorum imperator semper augustus; Germaniae, Hungariae, Bohemiae rex; Archidux Austriae; Burgundiae et Lotharingiae dux These refer to, in order, his titles of: By Grace of God, Holy Roman Emperor, the always august King of Germany, ...


13

Note that an empire isn't necessarily ruled by an emperor. When historians describe Alexander's conquests as an "empire", it is at least partly in reference to the fact that he subjugated many nations and countries under his central authority. Alexander was definitely an "emperor" in the sense that he was a ruler of this polity. As for the Chinese ...


12

Don't be misled by translations and cognates (words in different languages sharing a common root). German "mist" and English "mist" are cognates - but German "mist" is what farmers spread on their fields at night. Dignities are what they are, and reflect the specific history of every family - translation can only attempt description that is non-offending to ...


12

This is really more like a whole list of questions... 1. Why was de Grailly granted this title, which was apparently used by only a few families, and not some other title? I think there's a bit of confusion here. The prefix of Captal was the traditional title for the lords of Buch. Edward III granted Jean III de Grailly the fief of Buch which came with it ...


12

No, he is absolutely not the first to resign. There has been several resignations in Papal history, not all of which are undisputed or voluntary, though admittedly none in recent centuries. Some examples include: Benedict IX, resigned in 1045. Gregory VI, resigned in 1046. Celestine V, resigned in 1294. Celestine V in particular laid down the canon law ...


12

Caesar came first, and Caesar remained. We observe that the first really big contact between Germanic tribes and Rome took place when Gaius Iulius Caesar was campaigning 'in Gaul'. We observe also that under his adopted nephew Octavian the largest forays of Rome into Germanic lands was undertaken, bordering on colonising and provincialising Germany up to ...


11

The dialog on HBO is obviously dramatised, but Washington did privately profess to disapprove of such titles. In a letter to David Stuart dated 26 July 1789, Washington wrote that: It is to be lamented that [Adams] and some others have stirred a question, which has given rise to so much animadversion, and which I confess has given me much uneasiness, lest ...


10

They couldn't! All titles were bestowed by the sovereign, you couldn't just say "Oh, I've got a spare earldom etc I don't want, I'll give it to a friend." Apart from any other consideration, your eldest son would be deeply peeved, because he would expect to inherit it! Also, titles were not attached to land in quite the way the question suggests. When ...


10

I am aware of four states that used to style their chief executives as "president": Delaware, New Hampshire, Pennsylvania, and South Carolina. All of these positions were established in 1776, when the Thirteen Colonies rose in rebellion against the Crown and created new state constitutions to replace the old Colonial Charters. A majority continued the old ...


9

There seems to be three different claims as to why Ludendorff should be considered noble in the question: Ludendorff being descended from Eric XIV of Sweden. Ludendorff being descended from several nobles listed in the question. Ludendorff belonging to the "Junker" class. The first of these is relatively straightforward. Eric XIV had only two legitimate ...


7

(I know Lars Bosteen has provided an answer but in the interest of completing this answer, I've provided a slight update.) This is two questions rolled into one: Why, in particular, Wales? How did the convention (or tradition) develop for appointing the heir apparent the title: Prince of Wales Why Wales? The principalities of Wales was not unified under a ...


6

Technically speaking, a Khan is the titular sovereign ruler, whereas a taishi is "merely" a high ranking official. They're mutually exclusive positions, but did not always correspond to who was more powerful at a given time. In general, public opinion in Mongolia reserved the title of Khan for the descendants of Genghis Khan, while tribal leaders often took ...


6

Simply, there would have been no Princess of Wales. Caroline of Ansbach ceased to be the Princess of Wales on 11th June 1727 when she became Queen Consort when her husband became king. When George II became King, his eldest son, Frederick Louis became the Prince of Wales as the title is traditionally granted to the heir apparent to the British Monarch. ...


6

You are confusing his epithet with his regnal name. As already mentioned, the practice of Regnal Names was common in the Mughal and some other oriental dynasties. Definition by Wiki: A regnal name, or reign name, is a name used by some monarchs and popes during their reigns, and used subsequently to refer to them. The term is simply the adjective "...


6

Brenhin Pennaf - the high king, supreme king Brenhin - king Pendeuic - duke Arglwyd - baron or landed lord Canghellor - governor Deleyr - mayor or count, a local chief Hyneyw - a royal counselor Tywysog - a noble Note that all of these words have lots of different spellings. A king may be "brennin" or "brennan" or "vrenhin" or many other spellings.


6

The first person on your list is greek, so obviously being a Philhellence doesn't mean you must be non-greek. Actually, wikipedia says: the term 'philhellene' (Greek: φιλέλλην, from φίλος - philos, "dear one, friend" + Έλλην - Hellen, "Greek"[1]) was used to describe both non-Greeks who were fond of Greek culture and Greeks who patriotically upheld their ...


6

I'm not deeply familiar with this history and don't know Chinese, but can link you to some relevant terminology from Wikipedia. The institutional arrangements for foreign trade under the Qing dyansty prior to the Opium War are widely known as the Canton System. Apparently the primary Chinese term for this was yīkǒu tōngshāng (一口通商) meaning "single [port] ...


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