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Mar 28, 2022 at 15:03 answer added Dave timeline score: 0
Mar 9, 2020 at 22:49 comment added Spencer @rougon You could make an argument for Claudius, or at least Hadrian. Constantine III was actually based in Britain.
Mar 9, 2020 at 4:26 comment added sempaiscuba You might find the Wikipedia page on the [British Emperor[(en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Emperor), and the references cited there to be of interest.
Dec 2, 2017 at 5:00 comment added rougon Aethelstan had himself declated emporer in 930.
Dec 2, 2017 at 1:23 answer added DukeW timeline score: -1
Sep 20, 2015 at 16:52 answer added MCW timeline score: 1
Sep 19, 2015 at 22:11 answer added arober11 timeline score: -2
Sep 19, 2015 at 7:19 answer added MAGolding timeline score: 7
Jul 24, 2015 at 19:50 vote accept Jean-Christophe Dubacq
Aug 29, 2014 at 14:16 comment added MCW Certainly from the times of James II/VI, Monarch of Britain and Scotland, the Monarchy had the right to the title, but I believe I've seen it even earlier; I just can't remember where I saw it.
Aug 29, 2014 at 12:13 comment added MCW Not entirely sure that I understand the question. Disraeli and Victoria attached the title "Emperor" to the British Monarchy. Thus whoever occupies the throne gets the title (adjusted for gender). Thus when Edward assumed the throne after Victoria, he was "Emperor of India".
Aug 29, 2014 at 10:27 answer added fdb timeline score: 8
Feb 22, 2012 at 5:36 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/172192990226419712
Feb 10, 2012 at 20:14 vote accept Jean-Christophe Dubacq
Jul 24, 2015 at 19:49
Feb 8, 2012 at 16:20 answer added none timeline score: 20
Feb 8, 2012 at 12:31 answer added aeismail timeline score: 24
Feb 8, 2012 at 11:22 answer added Amandasaurus timeline score: 1
Feb 8, 2012 at 8:39 history asked Jean-Christophe Dubacq CC BY-SA 3.0