Timeline for Why does Latin America have a higher number of surviving Native Americans than North America?
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Apr 4, 2019 at 14:32 | answer | added | tbrookside | timeline score: 0 | |
S Apr 4, 2019 at 7:51 | history | suggested | Rodrigo de Azevedo |
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Apr 4, 2019 at 6:59 | review | Suggested edits | |||
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Apr 4, 2019 at 6:56 | comment | added | Rodrigo de Azevedo | @TylerDurden Enslaving Amerindians was tried and quickly abandoned, as they were physically weak and got sick too much. That was when importing African slaves became very attractive. | |
Jan 27, 2018 at 22:42 | history | protected | Steve Bird | ||
Jan 7, 2018 at 19:21 | answer | added | tj1000 | timeline score: 2 | |
Jun 7, 2017 at 14:43 | history | edited | EvanM | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 7, 2017 at 12:04 | answer | added | user25367 | timeline score: 0 | |
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:47 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://history.stackexchange.com/ with https://history.stackexchange.com/
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Apr 3, 2017 at 6:22 | comment | added | vsz | @RolenKoh : politically motivated cartoons depicting the colonization of America as a D-Day landing (troops jumping out of ships and starting shooting) is not the correct way of learning history. It was much, much complicated than that. | |
Apr 3, 2017 at 5:17 | comment | added | Rolen Koh | Because most Native Americans who did not die of diseases were killed by spears and guns of European settlers. There is something called "manifest destiny" which happened in North America specially USA. | |
Mar 27, 2015 at 18:46 | answer | added | T.E.D.♦ | timeline score: 38 | |
Mar 27, 2015 at 17:58 | answer | added | Gloria Rodríguez | timeline score: 1 | |
Feb 1, 2015 at 18:55 | answer | added | SJuan76 | timeline score: 17 | |
Feb 1, 2015 at 4:12 | answer | added | jamesqf | timeline score: 1 | |
Nov 4, 2014 at 8:41 | answer | added | Greg | timeline score: 11 | |
Nov 2, 2014 at 4:57 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/528772941169700864 | ||
Oct 31, 2014 at 15:01 | answer | added | Tom Au | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 7:32 | comment | added | jwenting | @TylerDurden nonsense. Those enslaved Amerindians died in droves. And the Spanish and Portuguese killed them in huge numbers as well. If anything the English killed far fewer. | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 7:29 | comment | added | Tyler Durden | It is because the Spanish and Portugeuse had a policy of enslaving the Indians whereas the English killed them. | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 7:10 | answer | added | jwenting | timeline score: 8 | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 6:20 | comment | added | Semaphore | Probably because Central and South America had larger native populations to begin with. Do you really want to ask about the numbers, or is the question more about the proportions? (p.s. this page) | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 6:19 | comment | added | user69715 | @Semaphore Which Wikipedia page did you paste the map from? | |
Oct 31, 2014 at 6:14 | history | edited | Semaphore | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 31, 2014 at 6:03 | history | asked | user69715 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |