Timeline for What made the English the dominant power of the British Isles?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 10 at 21:38 | comment | added | SPavel♦ | "Indicative of past relative strength" is completely wrong. While the Scots were always few, in 1800, Ireland had a population of 4-5 million, compared to England at around 8 million. | |
Apr 10, 2019 at 20:58 | history | edited | Tom Au | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 11, 2016 at 18:40 | comment | added | Tom Au | @ColinZwanziger: Changed Ireland's population to 6 million. Perhaps I "double counted" earlier. Ireland is slightly colder and decidedly less fertile than England. The potato was grown there because it needed fewer nutrients than say, wheat. | |
Aug 11, 2016 at 18:37 | history | edited | Tom Au | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Aug 11, 2016 at 18:26 | comment | added | Colin | ...at least as pertains to scotland and wales. Is ireland really colder or less fertile than england? | |
Aug 11, 2016 at 18:08 | comment | added | Colin | @TomAu My googling gives me 4.6m for R. of Ireland and 1.8m for N. Ireland for a total of 6.4m. You may be right on Scotland. I believe Ireland surpassed England in per capita GDP around 2000. Again, otherwise I agree w the thrust of your answer | |
Aug 11, 2016 at 17:56 | comment | added | Tom Au | @ColinZwanziger: I said "counting northern Ireland" for the 8 million figure. And when I checked, the Scots had a slightly lower per capita GDP than the English. But that is only in recent years because of North Sea oil. Earlier on, the Scots had a per capital GDP closer to that of the Irish or Welsh, a bit more than half of England's. | |
Aug 11, 2016 at 17:53 | comment | added | Colin | @Tom I agree with your answer overall, but ireland and I believe also scotalnd have higher per capita gdp than england. also irish population closer to 6 million | |
Aug 10, 2016 at 15:28 | history | edited | Tom Au | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Aug 10, 2016 at 15:22 | comment | added | LamaDelRay | Your answer mixed with that of called2voyage made me understand it better. So thanks a lot! | |
Aug 10, 2016 at 15:22 | comment | added | called2voyage | "So historically, the competition was not between England and the others, but rather between various "English" factions" - Indeed, in fact you could say there was competition between the various British factions throughout history. Exactly why a majority of these people became "English" is what I explain in my answer. | |
Aug 10, 2016 at 15:08 | history | answered | Tom Au | CC BY-SA 3.0 |