Timeline for When did the Roman Empire devalue currency?
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Nov 21, 2016 at 22:21 | comment | added | 0range | Which concept are you referring to as being too modern to be understood at the time? If you refer to inflation, you are probably right. But the Romans certainly understood tax policy, the distribution of the tax burden and the possibility to cut costs by debasing the silver (Dinarius) and gold (Aureus) coins. (Although they likely did not anticipate the long term effects of currency debasement.) | |
Nov 21, 2016 at 22:15 | comment | added | 0range | The Carthaginians were in Spain before the Romans, not the other way around. Rome conquered Spain (south of the Ebro) only after driving out the Carthaginians in the Second Punic war; the Carthaginians in Spain were never after Rome's silver supply. | |
Nov 16, 2016 at 19:29 | comment | added | Doctor Zhivago | This is far to modern a concept to be understood at that time. There was no paper money at the time so hard currency was simply very limited in supply. Greece's silver came from nearby Thrace whereas Rome's silver came from far away Spain (at least by the overland route.) So Rome was always in grave danger of having its physical monies not just debased but eliminated by any "barbarians" who might take Spain. This is certainly what Carthage tried but failed to do. | |
Nov 16, 2016 at 15:13 | history | answered | MCW♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |