Timeline for What percentage of British people during the industrial revolution were rich?
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9 events
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| Nov 25, 2016 at 16:20 | comment | added | WS2 | @SteveBird My figure for Britain (including Ireland) of 1780 is 12.98 million. So your numbers for 1814 would appear broadly to correspond correctly. No idea how you get to 29 million. The white population of places like India would have been negligible by comparison. And even if you include Canada, Australasia, Southern Africa etc. I still find it astonishing that those numbers would reach anything like 29 million. But it may be right. Still a bit doubtful about a "uniform social stratification", however. | |
| Nov 25, 2016 at 15:28 | comment | added | Steve Bird | @WS2 The source document was written in 1814 and it gives a population for Britain of 12.35 million (England, Scotland and Wales for 1811) with an additional 4.5 million in Ireland. So clearly the over 29 million in the table cannot be just the population of Britain. My assumption is that it covers just British citizens throughout the empire without including any native populations (the appendix notes a native Indian population of at least 40 million at the time), which is why I felt I could make the presumption of social uniformity. | |
| Nov 25, 2016 at 13:37 | comment | added | WS2 | I have not looked at the document, but your presumption that the social stratification "would be fairly uniform" throughout the British Empire of the time, I suggest, would be well wide of the mark, especially if you are including places like India. Your figures must surely just relate to Britain, where the population would have been roughly 24 million in 1840, having doubled from where it was 50 years earlier. | |
| Nov 24, 2016 at 6:38 | comment | added | pugsville | disagree standard of living wages experience was catchy in time and region, and if standard of living was surging why we're so many leaving for the coolonies | |
| Nov 23, 2016 at 0:03 | comment | added | Doctor Zhivago | Sounds about right. The standard of living for everyone surged in Great Britain during the Industrial Revolution. Since so many were leaving for "the Colonies" labor was in short supply too leading to a tremendous amount of conflict on the Home Island...and with the "Colonists." | |
| Nov 22, 2016 at 22:43 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | I would take "freeholder with a couple of domestic staff" to more likely be fourth-class and above, which would then be roughly 4.5% of the population (or about 1.5MM of a total population about 29MM). Which interpretation OP actually intends is of course up to him. | |
| Nov 22, 2016 at 21:07 | vote | accept | Peter Warrington | ||
| Nov 22, 2016 at 21:06 | vote | accept | Peter Warrington | ||
| Nov 22, 2016 at 21:07 | |||||
| Nov 22, 2016 at 20:59 | history | answered | Steve Bird | CC BY-SA 3.0 |