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Feb 20, 2017 at 23:59 vote accept Tirous
Feb 20, 2017 at 23:05 comment added KorvinStarmast MA let's not confuse the Greek and Roman times ... but yes, depending on the year, oarsmen were paid labor rather than slaves.
Feb 20, 2017 at 23:04 comment added MAGolding There weren't any galley slaves in ancient times, or not many. In fact Ii have read that many Hellenistic oarsmen were free lance professional rowers that would work for any state. The story is that Sparta won the Pelloponnesian War in the end because a Spartan admiral "cheated" in the eyes of the Athenians, paying rowers more than the customary rate (with Persian money) and thus hiring most of the available rowers and defeating the Athenians in battle
Feb 17, 2017 at 8:47 comment added SJuan76 But was that a matter of justice or just a practical issue (a 10 years old child would not be of much use as an oarsman, and you still had to feed and give water to him)
Feb 17, 2017 at 4:17 history answered KorvinStarmast CC BY-SA 3.0