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Nov 9 at 0:33 comment added Alexander Gelbukh @BrianZ. Yes, I talk about Serbs and Croats probably being different tribes that linguistically merged because of living near each other. No, I have no sources for this. Actually this was the very meaning of my question: I asked whether this was true.
Nov 9 at 0:28 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 5 at 22:38 comment added phoog @cipricus another significant point is that the Slavic migrations happened centuries before any of these languages are attested, such that the West Slavic language of the Sorbs is closer to Czech than it is to Serbian. The languages that all Slavs were speaking in the seventh century were far closer to each other than today, and the differences that we see today arose after the migrations. The "very beginning" of literary Serbian and Croatian is four centuries after the migrations; think about how much English has changed since the 1620s, and how much more it would have without writing.
Nov 4 at 10:00 history edited Evargalo
edited tags
Sep 26, 2023 at 7:52 answer added Roger V. timeline score: 2
Sep 26, 2023 at 3:13 answer added Walter timeline score: -3
Feb 17, 2021 at 4:02 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 16, 2021 at 17:51 comment added cipricus Wikipedia says South Slavic languages historically formed a continuum. The turbulent history of the area, particularly due to expansion of the Ottoman Empire, resulted in a patchwork of dialectal and religious differences. - and :From the very beginning, there were slightly different literary Serbian and Croatian standards, although both were based on the same dialect of Shtokavian — You say that the more you read the more you "feel" something perfectly contradictory: they are "unrelated Slavic tribes". What exactly have you read?
S Feb 16, 2021 at 12:12 history edited Pieter Geerkens CC BY-SA 4.0
typos and sense (good effort for a non-native speaker though)
S Feb 16, 2021 at 12:12 history suggested bigbadmouse CC BY-SA 4.0
typos and sense (good effort for a non-native speaker though)
Feb 16, 2021 at 11:21 review Suggested edits
S Feb 16, 2021 at 12:12
Feb 16, 2021 at 3:23 answer added Dave Vukusich timeline score: -3
Nov 15, 2020 at 11:57 comment added Greg Since Serbs and Croats were most probably several tribes themselves, this question doesn't make much sense. Between the people of different Slavic territories, the difference between the language was never a sharp divide, anyways. In the middle ages there were several lines along the transition between Slavic dialects were continuous and very subtle.
Oct 18, 2017 at 6:10 history tweeted twitter.com/StackHistory/status/920532403776643072
Oct 17, 2017 at 1:09 answer added user26763 timeline score: 2
Apr 26, 2017 at 17:13 comment added justCal I see no relevance for the military tag.
Apr 26, 2017 at 17:12 answer added justCal timeline score: 8
Apr 26, 2017 at 16:32 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 26, 2017 at 16:27 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 26, 2017 at 16:21 comment added Alexander Gelbukh @MarkC.Wallace I don't speak about culture at all. "People" is history: Romans and Carthaginians are different peoples whose wars are studied in history. Whether peoples are divided or merged is history. Not everything involving humans is sociology. History is about humans (and cultures, and peoples), too, when it comes to historical facts about these notions.
Apr 26, 2017 at 15:45 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 26, 2017 at 15:41 comment added Alexander Gelbukh @BrianZ "but the basic assumption is very dubious" -- this is precisely my question: is this assumption true or not, and where I can read about it.
Apr 26, 2017 at 15:41 comment added Alexander Gelbukh It's perfect history: have Serbs and Croats come to Balkans separately or together (and were divided later). These are historical facts. Nothing about sociology (such as whether they feel themselves currently a divided nation -- nothing of that).
Apr 26, 2017 at 15:38 comment added Brian Z It's not off-topic, but the basic assumption is very dubious: "Serbs and Croats are unrelated Slavic tribes, which came to Balkans separately and never had shared history or culture". Any sources for this?
Apr 26, 2017 at 15:21 review Close votes
Apr 27, 2017 at 19:06
Apr 26, 2017 at 14:13 history edited Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 26, 2017 at 13:58 comment added Alexander Gelbukh I don't say they don't (or do) have their own culture. For this specific question, it is only relevant that they have, very roughly speaking, a recent common ansestor (England, letting apart that no nation is homogeneous and there is Irish and whatever else ansestry, too), from which they divided into two nations that only after that developed their own cultures. The question is about the past, not present. (Or, well, Canada / US case is irrelevant here -- my question is about Serbs and Croats.)
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:50 comment added T.E.D. OMG - don't let any Canadians hear you say they don't have their own culture! You're likely to get an impressively polite talking to...
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:44 comment added Alexander Gelbukh In a way it does; it's largely one culture with a border. And yes, Ibero-America is another example. But my question is not about terms but whether it is a division or merger. Whether Serbs and Croats were the same tribe in recent past and then divided into two (another example: Bielorussians and Russinas have divided only by the border of Mongolian occupation; Korea and until recently Germany are other examples of religious/social division). Or, Serbs and Croats were different tribes that met only when they settled next to each other.
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:33 review First posts
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:36
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:33 comment added T.E.D. Most Americans and Canadians speak the same language. That doesn't make them a "divided nation" does it?
Apr 26, 2017 at 13:29 history asked Alexander Gelbukh CC BY-SA 3.0