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Jan 29, 2018 at 3:03 review Close votes
Jan 29, 2018 at 5:23
Jan 25, 2018 at 17:06 comment added TheHonRose @AndrewLeach I didn't know that! Thanks for the laugh ;)
Jan 24, 2018 at 23:35 comment added Andrew Leach @TheHonRose The British Sovereign is still called the Duke of Normandy (but only in the Channel Islands).
Jan 24, 2018 at 21:11 comment added Vladislavs Dovgalecs In general, it is wise not to drop the claim for nothing.
Jan 24, 2018 at 15:39 comment added TheHonRose I guess the same way British monarchs still adhere to the title "Defender of the Faith", a title bestowed by the Pope on Henry VIII before he broke with Rome. ;)
Jan 24, 2018 at 15:24 vote accept fbence
Jan 24, 2018 at 15:22 comment added fbence Political part moved to Politics SE: politics.stackexchange.com/questions/27583/… I will try and fix the wiki tonight.
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:45 history edited Lars Bosteen CC BY-SA 3.0
grammar, typo
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:45 comment added Semaphore @fbence Yes, that's probably a better question for Politics.SE, but I would guess if it wasn't an issue when they started, then it would feel tad silly to suddenly get outraged a few centuries later.
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:39 comment added fbence @Semaphore I don't have much time now so I'll check the answers in detail tonight (also possibly correct the wiki article I guess?).
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:37 comment added fbence @Semaphore Almost, what I don't quite understand, that why say claims like "King of Jerusalem" do not pose a diplomatic issue, but that might really be out of scope of history :)
Jan 24, 2018 at 14:20 comment added Semaphore @MAGolding Probably because it wasn't a claim of the Crown of Spain, but of the specific territories in personal union with Spain's kings. I added an explanation for Naples to my answer.
Jan 24, 2018 at 13:43 review Close votes
Jan 24, 2018 at 15:52
Jan 24, 2018 at 13:31 comment added fbence @Bregalad The part of the question not related specifically to Hungary is still valid, so I would kindly ask you not to.
Jan 24, 2018 at 13:28 comment added Bregalad I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is based on a vandalized wikipedia page as a source. Once the page is restored to only sourced information, this question has no reason to exist anymore.
Jan 24, 2018 at 12:43 comment added MAGolding Semaphore - see my answer below. For centuries the Kings of the Spains used the title of King of Hungary in documents in some of their possessions but not in documents in Spain itself.
Jan 24, 2018 at 12:40 answer added MAGolding timeline score: 4
Jan 24, 2018 at 1:52 history tweeted twitter.com/StackHistory/status/955981643264638976
Jan 24, 2018 at 1:25 history edited Semaphore CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 8 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Jan 24, 2018 at 1:18 answer added Semaphore timeline score: 58
Jan 23, 2018 at 22:40 answer added sempaiscuba timeline score: 16
Jan 23, 2018 at 20:35 comment added Semaphore The rest are just tradition, but I'm very skeptical of the "King of Hungary etc" bit. It was added by a user who claimed that Charles V incorporated it into his own titles, and left it to his grandson in his testaments, even though it was only held by his brother Ferdinand I. Maybe someone can dig up the original document and see what it says, but I'm not seeing any other evidence corroborating these claims.
Jan 23, 2018 at 20:19 comment added SPavel I would guess that the Hungary bit is through the Habsburgs, who inherited every title in Europe at least once.
Jan 23, 2018 at 20:12 history asked fbence CC BY-SA 3.0