Timeline for What's the rationale for shipping coins back to Spain from its colonies?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 18, 2020 at 11:50 | comment | added | Luiz | It makes sense. Spanish America had a lot of people, planned cities, local mayors and viceroys, religious orders, even universities. If there were no coins locally, paying salaries, building, and collecting taxes would be difficult. Also: the coins also left for Asia via Philippines. The Chinese were also fond of Spanish coins. | |
| Jan 19, 2019 at 15:01 | vote | accept | LаngLаngС | ||
| Aug 31, 2018 at 19:02 | history | bounty ended | LаngLаngС | ||
| Aug 22, 2018 at 15:02 | history | edited | Alberto Yagos | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Spelling errors.
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| Aug 22, 2018 at 15:01 | comment | added | Alberto Yagos | @LangLangC It doesn't provide a percentage, but the reports of the ships were available online when there was all the fuss about Odissey not wanting to sell the coins to the Spanish Government. I suppose you could look for them. I guess that when the mint house of Lima opened in 1684, the amount of silver coins sent to Spain increased a lot. After 1650 the amount of ingots of silver Spain received was much smaller (and the gold was almost non existant). | |
| Aug 22, 2018 at 11:19 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | +1 Especially the last one was on my list of possibilities. But does your source have any comparison in numbers for amount of raw material shipped in relation to the coins? I imagine the first point to be easily transformed via internal calculations while the other three might be quite a bit smaller than raw exports. | |
| Aug 22, 2018 at 11:13 | history | answered | Alberto Yagos | CC BY-SA 4.0 |