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Sep 7, 2018 at 13:59 comment added T.E.D. @RobertColumbia - IIRC, the Byzantines during the Middle Ages generally did refer to all Western Europeans as "Franks". So there was sort of a collective word, but it wasn't language-based.
Sep 2, 2018 at 20:17 comment added Daniel Jews were referred to as Jews. Moslems were Moslems or Saracens or later Moors. eg: Ott Jud (Ott the Jew) was a martial arts instructor in Austria known today for his treatise on grappling.
Aug 30, 2018 at 16:30 comment added Robert Columbia Similarly, you will not find medieval Arabic or Hebrew writings referring to Irish, Germans, Russians, Persians, or Hindis as "Indo-Europeans", even though we now know that these people spoke Indo-European languages.
Aug 30, 2018 at 16:17 vote accept Chrystomath
Aug 30, 2018 at 14:05 history edited T.E.D. CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2018 at 13:57 history edited T.E.D. CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2018 at 13:42 history edited T.E.D. CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 30, 2018 at 13:25 history answered T.E.D. CC BY-SA 4.0