Timeline for What is the significance of 4200 BCE in context of farming replacing foraging in Europe?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Jul 1, 2019 at 16:46 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 29, 2019 at 17:15 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 13, 2019 at 16:40 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 12, 2019 at 10:36 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 12, 2019 at 10:05 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 11, 2019 at 19:57 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 11, 2019 at 19:30 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | @PieterGeerkens Why does it have to be assumed that a culture "migrates", when over more than 1000 years cultures change, merge & newly emerge. On the one hand I do say (like you) that climate and crop fecundity might have played a role. But: As Morris said: "We frankly do not know why farming did finally move north after 4200 BCE." And the ascribed significance to 4200 is most probably one we construct. That's the FC to the Q "what was the event?": I argue that there was no event. | |
| May 11, 2019 at 18:05 | review | Low quality posts | |||
| May 11, 2019 at 18:35 | |||||
| May 11, 2019 at 17:58 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | I see no attempt in this post, anywhere, to explain how or why the century around 4200 BCE would be significant in the migration of an agricultural culture. | |
| May 11, 2019 at 17:49 | history | answered | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |