Timeline for Are there confirmed cases where a country changed its language without being conquered?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 21, 2018 at 9:36 | history | edited | Lars Bosteen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
punctuation
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| Dec 10, 2012 at 15:56 | history | edited | Steven Drennon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Cleaned up some spelling and grammar.
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| Dec 7, 2012 at 0:58 | comment | added | Felix Goldberg | Downvote: Both cases seem to be poor fits for the questions. | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 15:04 | comment | added | Sardathrion - against SE abuse | French is actually from the Langue d'oil (north) as opposed to the Langue d'oc (southern). Both of those did evolved from Latin and Gaulish but the latter (oc) was replaced mostly by conquest -- so the link is fine but not direct. </pedantic> | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 5:30 | comment | added | rerun | England reverted to english with out invasion. Latin was introduced by invasion but the derived languages are amalgamations. | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 5:23 | comment | added | Wladimir Palant | @rerun: Your link concerning French clearly shows that it didn't come to England "naturally", England was actually conquered by the French. And France doesn't seem to be a valid example either - Latin mixed with the languages of the invading Germanic tribes there. | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 3:28 | comment | added | Wilhelm | Even if Roman provinces used Latin they were in fact conquered by germanic tribes that mixed their languages with those in the region, forming the Romance languages. | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 1:55 | comment | added | Rincewind42 | Both French and English were originally brought into England via invasion and conquest. | |
| Oct 26, 2011 at 1:24 | comment | added | lins314159 | French was the language of the English nobility but English was always the language of the masses. Nationalistic fervour during the Hundred Years' War converted the nobles to English as well. | |
| Oct 25, 2011 at 21:12 | comment | added | Nate Glenn | I wouldn't count the Roman one. Every language on Earth changes gradually over time. | |
| Oct 25, 2011 at 20:04 | comment | added | rerun | @WladimirPalant Changed Post | |
| Oct 25, 2011 at 20:04 | history | edited | rerun | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 275 characters in body
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| Oct 25, 2011 at 19:52 | comment | added | Wladimir Palant | Could you expand this answer? From all I know most Roman provinces didn't use Latin as their main language - so they didn't exactly migrate away from it. Do you have any particular example in mind? And England's case is interesting but your answer lacks any details and/or references. | |
| Oct 25, 2011 at 19:48 | history | answered | rerun | CC BY-SA 3.0 |