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Aug 13, 2020 at 13:48 comment added MCW I think we're making simple things complex; the Russian empire was more interested in affiliating themselves with a glorious heritage than they were in historical accuracy.
Aug 13, 2020 at 13:04 history edited sempaiscuba CC BY-SA 4.0
Minor grammar fixes
Aug 13, 2020 at 12:28 history edited MCW CC BY-SA 4.0
added 68 characters in body
Aug 11, 2020 at 19:57 answer added llywrch timeline score: -1
Feb 20, 2020 at 5:02 answer added Propensity Elk timeline score: 6
Feb 19, 2020 at 13:08 vote accept Sinusx
Feb 19, 2020 at 3:47 comment added Mazura A word to describe an excessively formal process or procedure? – ELU. You keep using that word. I don't think it means what you think it means.
Feb 18, 2020 at 15:44 comment added hegel5000 In contrast, the modern nation-state of Turkey tries its best to pretend to have nothing to do with Eastern Rome, despite having far more in common: the Ottomans basically re-captured the entirety of Eastern Rome from various Arab and other Turkic dynasties. By the way, Istanbul is just a Greek-language name which commoners had called the city for quite some time, and the star+crescent symbol had long been associated with it, before the city was even called Constantinople.
Feb 18, 2020 at 1:30 answer added Tom Au timeline score: 12
Feb 17, 2020 at 20:35 comment added reirab "The title Tsar is not Byzantine and was first used by the Bulgarians." Don't they all ultimately trace back to transliterations of the Roman title 'Caesar?' Maybe the Bulgarians were the first to use the particular transliteration 'Tsar,' but they were most certainly not first to use the title.
Feb 17, 2020 at 17:51 comment added MCW @Sinusx, please move the clarifications into the question. The question should contain everything that OP knows, and everything that is necessary for research. Comments are barn cats
Feb 17, 2020 at 17:49 answer added Moishe Kohan timeline score: 10
Feb 17, 2020 at 17:15 answer added user27618 timeline score: 11
Feb 17, 2020 at 13:40 comment added Sinusx While Russia did share the same religion and claimed to be the heir to Byzantium after the fall of Constantinople on religious grounds, it is not the case that Russia exported many institutions from Byzantium. So even the Russia of 1550 does not necessarily have too much in common with Byzantium - and the book is about pre-revolutionary Russia. Hence I do not see why it would be a good idea to explain the relations between the Tsar and the people by comparing to Byzantium on a slim ground that Russia claimed descendancy for the reasons of prestige some 350 years prior to that.
S Feb 17, 2020 at 11:57 history suggested muru CC BY-SA 4.0
question is about 19.04
Feb 17, 2020 at 10:48 review Suggested edits
S Feb 17, 2020 at 11:57
Feb 17, 2020 at 6:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackHistory/status/1229284452888698880
Feb 17, 2020 at 5:45 history became hot network question
Feb 17, 2020 at 4:01 comment added Greg I have problems to understand your question(s). It seems to me that the text (although I know only the short quoted part) does not say what you assume it says. Russian orthodox church and the derived power of the tsar is clearly built on and historically ascending from the Byzantine tradition - no one says they invented everything. For centuries the Eastern and Western Christian traditions were clearly sperate from each other, so does the role of the church and religion in politics.
Feb 17, 2020 at 2:02 comment added user18968 See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_Rome
Feb 17, 2020 at 0:27 comment added Tomas By Religion is what you seem to be missing. Russia, Greece, Serbia/Bulgaria are Orthodox. Most of Europe is Catholic/Protestant.
Feb 16, 2020 at 23:36 answer added d.k timeline score: 42
Feb 16, 2020 at 23:28 comment added suchiuomizu I have not read this book, but before reading this question I would have wondered if anyone outside of Russia really believed in this connection in any meaningful way, which as I understand it was mostly tied to one of the last Byzantine princesses marrying into the Russian royal family and them try to use it to claim they were the 'Third Rome' after the fall of Constantinople?
Feb 16, 2020 at 23:20 comment added Sinusx @MarkC.Wallace I changed the title into a question. To expand on that: why is the late Russian empire is associated and compared to Byzantium, even though the two states seem to have very little in common? Would it be more appropriate to compare the pre-revolutionary Russia with some more recent states where more similarities exist?
Feb 16, 2020 at 23:13 history edited Sinusx CC BY-SA 4.0
Title edit, as asked in comments
Feb 16, 2020 at 21:35 review First posts
Feb 16, 2020 at 21:46
Feb 16, 2020 at 21:31 history asked Sinusx CC BY-SA 4.0