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Timeline for Karl Marx's usage of "Moor"

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Aug 15, 2023 at 23:58 vote accept Zev Spitz
Aug 15, 2023 at 20:25 history edited njuffa CC BY-SA 4.0
Fix translation: slightly more, not slightly less.
Aug 15, 2023 at 19:52 comment added njuffa @ZevSpitz The number that made me suspicious of Marx's data was actually the low percentage of Muslims among Jerusalem's population. As for the lack of attribution, I assume that the standards for newspaper articles are much laxer than for scientific publications even today, and especially a 170 years ago, when copyright was not quite a thing yet.
Aug 15, 2023 at 18:13 comment added Zev Spitz Is it reasonable to assume Famin is the "French author" of whom Marx speaks? Why didn't he attribute the French authorship to the data and previous paragraph as well?
Aug 15, 2023 at 18:08 comment added Zev Spitz so I consulted the Wikipedia page NB. I would note the Wikipedia page dismisses the 5 censuses conducted by Sir Moses Montefiore of the Jewish population, in which an estimated 99% of the Jewish population participated and searchable online, with a quote by Edward Robinson that the 1st census was falsified. A perusal of the 1849 census data shows some 1800 households with 3-5 members (i.e. not widows and orphans alone); the Jewish figure of 8000 is not out of the realm of possibility.
Aug 15, 2023 at 13:26 comment added T.E.D. Fair. I guess I missed the point(tree) there for the forrest.
Aug 15, 2023 at 13:24 comment added njuffa @T.E.D The point here is that French "Maures" is not used to refer to "people with very dark skin generally", at least not according to the French Wikipedia. FWIW, the meaning of German "Mauren" largely matches the meaning of French "Maures". I am not sure I follow your general issue: cognates and loanwords are a thing, but of course divergent meanings can evolve over time, so one needs to check usage, not make assumptions based purely on etymology.
Aug 15, 2023 at 13:07 comment added T.E.D. I feel bad because I just got on someone's case for thinking words had exact equivalents in other language cultures like this, but I'm pretty sure Maures is the French version of the Latin Mauri which came into English as "Moors". The meanings don't seem to have evolved separately in French and English all that much. So in this case its probably reasonable to consider them the same word.
Aug 15, 2023 at 9:32 history edited njuffa CC BY-SA 4.0
Fix typo
Aug 15, 2023 at 9:21 history answered njuffa CC BY-SA 4.0