2: Would she have been a slave?
Very unlikely in England at that time.
Wikipedia seems to indicate that internal slavery in Britain was unheard of by 1200.
As you say, according to Wikipedia
after the Norman Conquest. Former slaves merged into the larger body of serfs in Britain and no longer were recognized separately in law or custom
...
In 1102, the Church Council of London convened by Anselm issued a decree: "Let no one dare hereafter to engage in the infamous business, prevalent in England, of selling men like animals."[15] However, the Council had no legislative powers, and no act of law was valid unless signed by the monarch.
The influence of the new Norman aristocracy led to the decline of slavery in England. Contemporary writers noted that the Scottish and Welsh took captives as slaves during raids, a practice which was no longer common in England by the 12th century. However, by the start of the 13th century references to people being taken as slaves stopped. While there was no legislation against slavery and Wales,[16] William the Conqueror introduced a law preventing the sale of slaves overseas.[17] According to historian John Gillingham, by about 1200 slavery in the British Isles was non-existent.[16]
I see no reason to doubt this. The feudal roles of serfs, cottars and others probably provided the Norman lords with all the control they wanted over their workforce.
The Atlantic slave trade started in the 16th century but that was not supplying slaves to work in Britain and initially the victims of the trade had the rights of indentured servants. I believe the victims were exclusively from Africa.