Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

The Moors Wikipedia entry only broadly addresses when the term came into common use and when it left; the details of when particular shades of meaning came into/out-of use are not mentioned.

To complicate matters, while Marx appears to have been writing in English (per the site containing the source quote), his usage may have been influenced by shades of meaning in his native German.

Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854, says the following:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

The Moors Wikipedia entry only broadly addresses when the term came into common use and when it left; the details of when particular shades of meaning came into/out-of use are not mentioned.

To complicate matters, while Marx appears to have been writing in English (per the site containing the source quote), his usage may have been influenced by shades of meaning in his native German.

Note that Marx used the term in another column, some 6 months later (emphasis added);

On the other hand, the inland towns and cities [of medieval Spain] rose to great consequence, from the necessity people found themselves under of residing together in places of strength, as a security against the continual irruptions of the Moors; while the peninsular formation of the country, and constant intercourse with Provence and Italy, created first-rate commercial and maritime cities on the coast.

it seems plausible to assume his usage was consistent.

Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

The Wikipedia page only broadly addresses when the term came into common use and when it left; the details of when particular shades of meaning came into/out-of use are not mentioned.

Per Marxist.org Marx was writing in English. OTOH it's certainly possible he was thinking in German, and we're trying to figure out which meaning in German was he referencing when using the English "Moor". Which of those two Marx meant to use would be subject to literary analysis. Is such a literary analysis off-topic here?

Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

The Moors Wikipedia entry only broadly addresses when the term came into common use and when it left; the details of when particular shades of meaning came into/out-of use are not mentioned.

To complicate matters, while Marx appears to have been writing in English (per the site containing the source quote), his usage may have been influenced by shades of meaning in his native German.

Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

Karl Marx, writing for the Herald Tribune in 1854:

the sedentary population of Jerusalem numbers about 15,500 souls, of whom 4,000 are Mussulmans and 8,000 Jews. The Mussulmans, forming about a fourth part of the whole, and consisting of Turks, Arabs and Moors, are, of course, the masters in every respect, as they are in no way affected with the weakness of their Government at Constantinople. Marxists.org

I understand Marx's usage of "Moors" refers either to people from northwest Africa, or to people with very dark skin generally.

1. Is this a correct understanding of Marx's meaning?
2. Is Marx's usage anachronistic? In other words, had the term fallen out of use by 1854?

The Wikipedia page only broadly addresses when the term came into common use and when it left; the details of when particular shades of meaning came into/out-of use are not mentioned.

Per Marxist.org Marx was writing in English. OTOH it's certainly possible he was thinking in German, and we're trying to figure out which meaning in German was he referencing when using the English "Moor". Which of those two Marx meant to use would be subject to literary analysis. Is such a literary analysis off-topic here?