I recently found a source referenced on wikipedia — Hill, J. R. (2002). The Oxford Illustrated History of the Royal Navy. Oxford University Press. pp. 135–137. ISBN 0-19-860527-7. — which allegedly states that at times about one quarter of British sailors were recruited against their will.

While I can't access that source, if the summary is correct, this means the phenomenon was a lot more widespread and relevant (to both the life of people in coastal areas and to the ultimate strength and success of the British navy) than I previously thought.

However, most of the information on impressment I could find was pertaining to the British and US navies. Was this a specifically or primarily English practice — or is it just reporting bias?

I am especially curious whether the iberian naval empires (Spain and Portugal) or the Dutch also practiced it to such a significant extent. Also, if they originally didn't, did they maybe take inspiration from the English and later introduce it, as a draft-of-sorts though of course limited by the required qualifications of the people it targeted?

I recently found a source referenced on wikipedia — Hill, J. R. (2002). The Oxford Illustrated History of the Royal Navy. Oxford University Press. pp. 135–137. ISBN 0-19-860527-7. — which allegedly states that at times about one quarter of British sailors were recruited against their will.

While I can't access that source, if the summary is correct, this means the phenomenon was a lot more widespread and relevant (to both the life of people in coastal areas and to the ultimate strength and success of the British navy) than I previously thought.

However, most of the information on impressment I could find was pertaining to the British and US navies. Was this a specifically or primarily English practice — or is it just reporting bias?

I am especially curious whether the Iberian naval empires (Spain and Portugal) or the Dutch also practiced it to such a significant extent. Also, if they originally didn't, did they maybe take inspiration from the English and later introduce it, as a draft-of-sorts though of course limited by the required qualifications of the people it targeted?

I recently found a source referenced on wikipedia — Hill, J. R. (2002). The Oxford Illustrated History of the Royal Navy. Oxford University Press. pp. 135–137. ISBN 0-19-860527-7. — which allegedly states that at times about one quarter of British sailors were recruited against their will.

While I can't access that source, if the summary is correct, this means the phenomenon was a lot more widespread and relevant (to both the life of people in coastal areas and to the ultimate strength and success of the British navy) than I previously thought.

However, most of the information on impressment I could find was pertaining to the GB and US navies. Was this a specifically or primarily English practice — or is it just reporting bias?

I am especially curious whether the iberian naval empires (Spain and Portugal) or the Dutch also practiced it to such a significant extent. Also, if they originally didn't, did they maybe take inspiration from the English and later introduce it, as a draft-of-sorts though of course limited by the required qualifications of the people it targeted?

I recently found a source referenced on wikipedia — Hill, J. R. (2002). The Oxford Illustrated History of the Royal Navy. Oxford University Press. pp. 135–137. ISBN 0-19-860527-7. — which allegedly states that at times about one quarter of British sailors were recruited against their will.

While I can't access that source, if the summary is correct, this means the phenomenon was a lot more widespread and relevant (to both the life of people in coastal areas and to the ultimate strength and success of the British navy) than I previously thought.

However, most of the information on impressment I could find was pertaining to the British and US navies. Was this a specifically or primarily English practice — or is it just reporting bias?

I am especially curious whether the iberian naval empires (Spain and Portugal) or the Dutch also practiced it to such a significant extent. Also, if they originally didn't, did they maybe take inspiration from the English and later introduce it, as a draft-of-sorts though of course limited by the required qualifications of the people it targeted?