It was suggested in a TV interview that I saw that prior to 1919 in the UK, women were owned by men. An example to solidify this, was women taking on their husbands last name.
My question is:
- Were women not been able to own property, mean that they were in fact, property themselves? As in, they could not own land, but could they just not leave their husband and go back to their families if they wished?
- Was it not the case that people who owned land in general, were the aristocracy? Meaning that the vast majority of both men and women in the UK did not have land to own? (Similar to the TV show Poldark and Jane Austen novels.)
The video in question is a thirteen minute excerpt from the interview of Jordan Peterson recently by Helen Lewis.
- 0:48: Lewis states:
You had a system where one set of people owned another set of people. Until women got full legal rights, [where] they could own property themselves, [and] they could work, essentially they were owned by their fathers and then by their husbands.
