In medieval times, we often read of Semitic pogroms and expulsions etc., for example in Spain, or after the Black Death. Do the original sources refer specifically to "Semites" or to "Jews"? And if Semites, do they mean "Jews" or "Arabs/Moors"?
This question was suggested by the observation that such anti-Semitic calls seem to coincide with the advance of the Ottomans, for example in the late fourteenth century, the fall of Constantinople, etc. Spanish, French, and English royalty often worked with Semites as bankers, so they did not have any incentive to expel them. Rather it seems that such calls originated from bottom up, so to speak.
To take a specific example, in Spain, there must have been many families who were originally Muslim, and who probably still spoke Arabic. If a preacher condemned Jews, wouldn't it be natural to include Muslims as well? Were they also massacred along with the Jews in 1366 and 1391?