In some Tudor-period acts of attainder (laws passed by Parliament declaring certain people to be guilty of crimes and ordaining their punishment), there is a stipulation that the named person will not enjoy "benefit of clergy".
- A murder statute, 12 Henry VII c.7 (1496) says that one James Grame "shall be drawn, and hanged in such manner and form, as by the law of the land has been used in such cases, as persons being no clerks, doing like murder, have or ought to be punished, any privilege of his clergy, or demand of the same notwithstanding".
- The notorious "Act for poisoning", 22 Henry VIII c.9 (1530), declared that Richard Roose "shall stand, and be attainted of High Treason, and shall be therefore boiled to Death, without Benefit of Clergy".
(These are both quoted from Statutes at Large.)
I understand that if somebody was convicted of a crime in the normal way, they could under certain circumstances claim their "clergy", which transferred the case to an ecclesiastical court where any punishment would be nominal. They did not have to actually be in holy orders. There is a long history of this process being shaped and reformed before its eventual abolition. Procedurally, I believe that at this time it was up to the secular court to determine whether to permit the claim, which had to be made before sentencing.1
What I do not understand is why these laws take away clergy from the specific named people, who were convicted and sentenced by statute. I am wondering what procedural/legal mechanism there might have been for them to assert their clergy when they were not appearing before a judge in a real criminal trial. In my imagination, when they are being dragged off for execution they could no more claim benefit of clergy than they could plead not guilty - they aren't in a courtroom and these words have no special meaning. But presumably, Parliament wrote the laws this way intending them to have an actual legal consequence, so there must have been some potential avenue being closed off to the attainted person.
In Coke's Reports on "Powlter's Case" (vol. 11 fol. 29ff), which is rather later, under James I, he comments favourably on a statute 1 Edward VI c.12. This refers to any person "in due form of law attainted or convicted" of various crimes, who "shall not be admitted to have the benefit of clergy or sanctuary". Coke says at 32a that the form of words chosen resolves some defects in earlier law, as "due form of law" applies to "men outlawed, attainted by battel, abjured, attainted by Parliament" - so he appears to think that there is some situation where a person "attainted by Parliament" might be able to claim clergy, if it were not for this Act. But I do not know what that might be.
Probably I am wrong about some aspect of the law - say, perhaps, an early sixteenth-century bishop might have actually been able to intervene on his own initiative; or there was some sort of habeas-corpus procedure for getting in front of a proper judge even after an act of attainder. I am looking for a well-informed answer on what that might be, for this specific period prior to 1533-ish. (Cutoff there because of the break with Rome, the submission of the clergy, etc., would likely change things.)
1 From Hale's Historia Placitorum Coronae (1736), which is much later but does at least talk about this period, it appears that the assessment of a claim to clergy had been taken over by the king's courts long before, and the local ordinary (the bishop) would send a representative to witness the proceedings but not take part. Hale also mentions that benefit of clergy could be allowed post-sentencing, even on the gallows, "if the judge come that way" (chapter 52), but this appears to be a special exception to the principle that the sentence was final. It has to be the same judge from the trial, who is present at the scene and suffers an attack of conscience.